I meant to say this during the podcast but will add it here. The Greek word that is translated "eternal" is aionios, which is an adjective of the noun aion. The noun, aion, means "eon, age." Consider Matthew 28:20 where Jesus says he will be with us "to the end of the age" That is the genitive of aion, and it means a period of time with an end. The noun is translated as a temporal period. Why is it when we translate the adjective of that root, we translate it as "eternal" (i.e. unending duration)? I don't know enough about it, but I'm curious. Perhaps there are some Greek scholars that can make an argument.
I know that Origen brings this issue up, i.e., that it is odd to translate the adjective as "eternal," so he thinks of it as "undetermined duration" instead of "unending duration." Why is it that some Greek speaking Christians saw hell as a temporal state instead of eternal one? I think it was because they were Greek speakers and saw nuance that some Latin speakers, who might have not been fans of Greek (Augustine), missed. Obviously, some Greek speakers went with eternal torment, as well. But knowing the language probably made some difference to those of the Alexandrian branch. I wonder, are we translating it "eternal" because it is the best translation or because it is the favored doctrine?
I meant to say this during the podcast but will add it here. The Greek word that is translated "eternal" is aionios, which is an adjective of the noun aion. The noun, aion, means "eon, age." Consider Matthew 28:20 where Jesus says he will be with us "to the end of the age" That is the genitive of aion, and it means a period of time with an end. The noun is translated as a temporal period. Why is it when we translate the adjective of that root, we translate it as "eternal" (i.e. unending duration)? I don't know enough about it, but I'm curious. Perhaps there are some Greek scholars that can make an argument.
I know that Origen brings this issue up, i.e., that it is odd to translate the adjective as "eternal," so he thinks of it as "undetermined duration" instead of "unending duration." Why is it that some Greek speaking Christians saw hell as a temporal state instead of eternal one? I think it was because they were Greek speakers and saw nuance that some Latin speakers, who might have not been fans of Greek (Augustine), missed. Obviously, some Greek speakers went with eternal torment, as well. But knowing the language probably made some difference to those of the Alexandrian branch. I wonder, are we translating it "eternal" because it is the best translation or because it is the favored doctrine?
“I wonder, are we translating it ‘eternal’ because it is the best translation or because it is the favored doctrine?”
Uh, oh. I think you’re on to something here, and I like it.